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T.Paine,

"A man’s ability to be united to his wife sexually is was what made him a candidate for marriage. If he was unable to achieve sexual union because of a birth defect, castration, or a vow of celibacy, then marriage was not his vocation."

Ah, so you must oppose marriage for not only homosexuals and non-Christians, but for those who cannot have or do not want to have children. I wonder how that would go over in the United States.
09/12/12 @ 14:16
Comment from: JMyste [Visitor]
Actually, you should oppose marriage for any women over around 40. Marriage is for procreation and the chil'ren.
09/12/12 @ 17:24
Comment from: T. Paine [Visitor] · http://savingcommonsense.blogspot.com
Ryan, you would be incorrect in your assumption, sir. Non-Christians can obviously still have "valid" marriages. Indeed a loving non-Christian husband and wife that consummate their marriage still meets the definition of marriage of which Christ spoke. As for having children, the Catholic Church teaches that the husband and wife’s marital embrace is for two purposes: pro-creative AND unitive. As long as the couple are open to the possibility of life in their conjugal act, then they are fulfilling God’s will, whether or not children are produced by their union. I think that addresses your comment too, John.
09/14/12 @ 10:40
Let's see if I understand.

To be a candidate for marriage, one need only be able to "unite" with another sexually. According to you, this is only possible for a man and a woman.

However, the marriage itself is only valid if the couple (1) consummates it and (2) is open to the possibility of producing a child.

If this is all true, please answer the following:

Do you oppose marriage for couples that do not consummate their marriage?

Do you oppose marriage for couples that are not open to the possibility of producing a child? I am part of such a couple, so I am eager to know.

Why is "sexual unification" only possible between a man and a woman?

If marriage need not be restricted to Christians, then why must we, as a secular and diverse society that has made marriage a secular institution, abide by Christian (specifically Catholic) rules for marriage?

Let me re-phrase the previous question so my purpose is clear:

My wedding was entirely secular: it did not take place in a church, there was no priest or minister, and there was no mention of any deity whatsoever. My marriage was therefore completely divorced from Christianity. It was essentially just a verbal agreement to stay together (which anyone can make) and a related legal contract (which is secular, not religious). Why do you think that you have any business telling other people that they cannot get married when their marriage has nothing to do with your religion?

You do not want to make atheism illegal. You are content to let God sort it out once atheists die. You ought to be content to let God sort out "valid" marriages from "invalid" marriages--not interfere with secular agreements that do not involve you.
09/14/12 @ 12:05
Comment from: T. Paine [Visitor] · http://savingcommonsense.blogspot.com
Ryan, I am gathering that my statements have vexed you. I apologize if so, because that was not my purpose.

I simply wished to point out what constituted a sacramental Christian marriage as defined by Christ himself. This definition necessarily precludes gay marriage. Yes, other marriages, including your secular one, are valid as civil marriages. That is fine. I have no right, power, nor intention to regulate such things. I have no right or power to regulate gay marriage either. I simply am against the concept of gay marriage for societal/sociological reasons, as well as the fact that my faith has instructed me so. If gay marriage were ever to appear on a ballot before me, I would be obliged to vote against it accordingly.

My purpose was to state my opinion and point out the factually erroneous argument of Christians justifying gay marriage as being acceptable by Christian theology. Such is not the case, even without resorting to “Sopticing” – errr, I mean “Breitbarting”.

09/14/12 @ 14:40
Comment from: Emily [Visitor]
T. Paine,
I can't speak for Ryan, but for me it's not the "statement" or the words and explanation of one's faith that upsets me. In fact, I am glad to read it. I was having a conversation with a good friend about this issue and how I (as someone who is practically an atheist) cannot understand the religious opposition to equality. On one level, I see that that is what one religion may tell some of its followers. But what I can't understand is how that mindset jives with the Constitution. So thank you for trying to explain it to me. What upsets me is the desire to vote against denying other people their fundamental rights (I'll leave the fact that it's even on the ballot for another time). If you truly believe that you have no right to regulate civil marriage, why would you vote to deny other people their fundamental rights? Does your religion (please remember, I am practically an atheist. I am not asking to be sarcastic, I'm asking because I really don't know) also tell you that it is your religions obligation to prevent other people from fully enjoying their lives if their enjoyment conflicts with how you have chosen to live your life? Does your religion tell you that you can only live in a country that is governed by your religion?
09/16/12 @ 14:32

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